(no title)
GlobalTraveler | 9 years ago
The waterfall conjecture was stated as : 'Given any chess-playing algorithm A that accesses a "waterfall oracle" W, there is an equally good--chess-playing algorithm A', with similar time and space requirements that does not access W.'
From this we can assume that the article is a metaphor for us as external observer given semantics for computation. Thus by providing the reduction we showed that the computation in and of itself does not have semantics. However, why would we assume there to exists A'? Even if there is A', can't we reduce A -> A', and if we can reduces W to A, then by proxy W -> A'?
Could somebody help me?
solusipse|9 years ago
GlobalTraveler|9 years ago
Could you elaborate on the oracle approach? Because I interpreted it as being the external observer in this case. From computational complexity I know that an oracle solves NP problems in polytime by a nondetermnistic turing machine, but I am not sure how this oracle stuff loops back to the philosphical argument.
The proof provided by Aaronson is really opague as to what and how it proves that the argument is invalid.
eru|9 years ago