(no title)
babypistol | 7 years ago
But it seems to me that even in the example from your note the stock price will tend to reflect the the correct price. As you realease new information the factorization becomes more feasible and once it's feasible enough the stock price will get the correct value. Maybe we should amend EMH to say that asset prices fully reflect all the facts that are feasible to compute from the available information.
Anyway, the reason I'm writing this comment is to say that you should no be so sure of your proofs, especially because your proof of the infinitude of primes is wrong. This proof does not show that the new number (the product of primes + 1) is prime. It shows that none of the primes are factors in this new number and from that it follows that there must be more primes, but it does not follow that the new number is necessarily prime (it might be a product of another unknown primer and the others).
viraghr|7 years ago
For the prime proof, the new number is prime as long as as it has no prime factors < itself, which we assumed at the start. This guarantees it's prime under our assumption and this falsifies the assumption. Doesn't matter if it's really prime.