didn't know that info actually, as it's different here in Europe. I also see they had 91% in 2014 which is also interesting. Anyways wasn't really attacking them at all and also think the reason behind the 0$ is quite relevant in the discussion, yet I do strongly oppose the idea the original commenter made that amazon had been doing its fair share and square. They are doing whats best for them under what the law permits, including lobbying btw which uncertainly bends the laws to their favour. And the real debate in my opinion is, should it be possible this way ?
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