[seatdrummer]

As an aside, at what point do we stop an interesting discussion due to a limit of studies or data.

If something hasn't been measured, or hasn't been measured since 2016, can we really just give in.

If the question is about media being sympathetic, in recent years, toward the oppression that every black person in the u.s. experiences every day. Does data from the 90s really trump no data at all? Isn't the question about recent times for which nobody might have evidence for ordering either case.

And if there is no study, can a sound and valid argument still be made.

[skh]

In general I agree with the sentiment of your comments. I’m not one to dismiss a person’s opinion posted on an internet discussion site due to lack of cited studies. No one can provide studies to back up their views in every instance.

In the context we are talking about media perceptions. One person presents a study that provides an opposite conclusion to another person’s view. That study is 4 years old. Things may have changed in the intervening 4 years and arguments that they have are welcome.