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error54 | 6 years ago

You're rewording what they said. If any group of people is more policed than another group of people, said group is more likely to have a criminal record. Doesn't mean they're more "criminal" than any other group but more of a reflection on the current state of the criminal justice system.

To paraphrase Warren Buffet: "If a cop follows you for 500 miles, they're going to find a reason to give you a ticket."

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o_p|6 years ago

Could be true for trivial felonies like a ticket, but if we talk about real crime thats not really an excuse. Would be more inclined to think black people commit more crime because socioeconomic factors, as poverty correlates crime.

crooked-v|6 years ago

...which, even if true, would circle back to 'being black' being a correlation to but not causative of criminal records.

andrewprock|6 years ago

It really depends on how you define crime. Usually crime and prosecution is defined in such a way as to impact the lower classes more than the upper classes.

twyasdfg|6 years ago

"The offending rate for African Americans was almost 8 times higher than European Americans, and the victim rate 6 times higher. Most homicides were intraracial, with 84% of European Americans victims killed by European Americans, and 93% of African Americans victims were killed by African Americans.". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_and_crime_in_the_United_S....

How does overpolicing explain both arrest for murder rate and victim of murder rate have a significantly higher prevalence within black community?