[rjf72]

What would you suggest is the minimum evidence necessary to support the view that an ideology promotes violence?

- Isolated incidents of violence on behalf of the ideology?

- A "sufficiently large" number of incidents on behalf of the ideology? If so, could you elaborate on "sufficiently large" as you see it?

- A general tacit approval of violence?

- An explicit approval of violence?

- Something else?

The problem I think that many see is there tends to be extensive cognitive dissonance. People apply one set of standards to groups they like, and another to ones that they don't. I think you'll find that in trying to answer my above question it becomes quite difficult to include the groups you don't like, while excluding the groups you do like. That's even when my framing above which is unrealistically softball. For instance I didn't even mention things like harassment, destruction of property, etc which I think we should also generally be intolerant of - even when it's a group we like engaging in such things.