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codeplea | 6 years ago

For there to be infringement, someone needs to prove that copying took place. Because of the algorithm these musicians used to generate this, they can prove mathematically that copying did not take place.

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calibas|6 years ago

So if an algorithm you wrote produces a melody identical to a copyrighted work, you can claim copyright of the melody too?

I don't believe there's an objective right and wrong answer here, we're still figuring out how our legal system should adapt to modern technologies.

tebruno99|6 years ago

Part of the law is that the infringer has to have had access to the work that he/she is accused of "stealing"

An Algorithm has no access and could have never heard the work in question..

k__|6 years ago

I think there is a difference in creating an algo that generates all possible solutions vs one that generates one specific solution.

bathtub365|6 years ago

Sounds a bit like parallel construction...

Supermancho|6 years ago

> For there to be infringement, someone needs to prove that copying took place.

The argument isn't going to help. If you are creating every permutation in the purpose of publishing, you are inherently aware that you are intentionally copying published works (and are familiar with the concepts), even without specifically choosing to reproduce in each individual permutation.