Generally yes, though it would depend on the exact context.
The Spanish monarchy in the 1600s or in the 17th century is the same for me, same if you say "the Spanish monarchy (1600-1699)", unless a specific event happened in 1700 (revolution?).
Yes, that wasn't my point. I find the term "synonymous" when used for unambiguous numerical values that are off by 1% strange. But i'm not a native english speaker.
Roughly 1% of people born in the 17th century were not born in the 1600's.
Leherenn|5 years ago
The Spanish monarchy in the 1600s or in the 17th century is the same for me, same if you say "the Spanish monarchy (1600-1699)", unless a specific event happened in 1700 (revolution?).
drdec|5 years ago
ponyfleisch|5 years ago
Roughly 1% of people born in the 17th century were not born in the 1600's.