(no title)
daxorid | 5 years ago
Can you explain this? It's never made any sense, at all.
1. If you earn excess unreported income, eventually the IRS will figure it out and come get their cut.
2. If you earn it through criminal means, you're already committing a crime for which, if caught, you will be punished.
Why is the act of obfuscating the source of income a crime? Who gets harmed by this, that isn't already harmed by either the potential crime committed or taxes evaded?
sailfast|5 years ago
If drug dealers in the 80s could have started hedge funds (or even deposit funds legally) with their shoeboxes of cash, it would’ve been an even crazier ball game.
naringas|5 years ago
a series of legislations right around the time of declaration of war against drugs (91st USA congress) pretty much made 'money laundering' a thing
prior to that, during the prohibition era it wasn't called money laundering yet it was simple tax evasion.
0xEFF|5 years ago
It's no different for a financial institution holding onto a bag of cash.
leetcrew|5 years ago
there's nothing inherently wrong with obfuscating a source of income, although it's hard to do this without committing some sort of fraud along the way. it's a (somewhat distasteful, imo) administrative convenience. people who run criminal enterprises have a variety of methods for distancing themselves from the actual crimes they are making money from. it turns out to be a lot easier to catch them doing funny stuff with money than it is to pin any of the original crimes on them.