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0xff00ffee | 5 years ago

You asked for a "law" of equality (whatever that is) and provided an answer that proves it converges to 1. What more could you possibly want?

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tom-thistime|5 years ago

We seem to agree on this: you don't think there's any need for a way to determine whether two real numbers are equal.

For ordinary math, though, using some criterion for equality (for example x>=y and y>=x) is basic and not controversial. So it seems unconvincing (to me) when you seem to imply the opposite.

esmi|5 years ago

There is an easy way to prove two numbers are equal. Typically in the reals there are three possibilities: a > b, a < b, a = b. If you eliminate a > b and a < b then you are left to conclude a = b. And this is exactly what is done in Apostol's Calculus Vol 1 (IMHO the greatest calc book ever written) chapter 1 when he proves that the area under n^2 is EXACTLY (n^3)/3, with no "calculus". You would be shocked how far into calculus the author gets with just that theorem. Can't recommend that book enough.

0xff00ffee|5 years ago

> you don't think there's any need for a way to determine whether two real numbers are equal.

You are putting words in my mouth.

And you clearly do not understand the answer.

I guess I'm not very good at ELI5 because I very clearly answered your question with your own proposal.

Maybe when you get to college a professor can do a better job explaining it to you (if you actually make it to college, because you're going to struggle very hard if that's how you think when an answer is spoon-fed to you).