I mean, the answer is trivially zero, there exists a PDF-like structure somewhere in Pi, and the offset of that doesn't have to be zero, it can start or end anywhere. So the range [0, N] is a valid PDF.
No, all strings theoretically exist in 𝛑 given enough digits, so longer strings don't reduce probability of existence, they just mean that it will take more digits to find them.
I'm not sure that's necessarily true. It is true (at least with a non-constructive proof) that if you pick a 'random' real number then it contains all possible PDFs with probability one ( or that the set of numbers for which this is not true has lebesgue measure zero). But I'm not sure it's known that pi has this property.
vcxy|5 years ago
paulmd|5 years ago
drevil-v2|5 years ago
btown|5 years ago
mtzet|5 years ago
poizan42|5 years ago
We don't know whether pi is that either for any integer base.
SteveGoob|5 years ago
Sure we do. There are plenty of proofs out there that pi is an irrational number.
gorgoiler|5 years ago
I understand the point that PI contains every possible piece of information, theoretically.
However, the chance of finding a given string in PI depends on the string’s length. The longer the string, the more the probability tends to 0.
The paradox therefore is that PI contains every PDF, but you will never find them, so in what sense does it really contain them at all?
lsiebert|5 years ago
rezeroed|5 years ago
nroets|5 years ago
Including a PDF that generates the digits of pi
adtac|5 years ago
egocodedinsol|5 years ago
dheera|5 years ago
ducktective|5 years ago
unknown|5 years ago
[deleted]
rbonvall|5 years ago