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stlee42 | 5 years ago
So from our point of view, we cannot know given a statement whether it can be proven or not.
So all true statements in pure mathematics that we know are a posteriori true, since before we had the experience of proving it, we could not know if it's a statement that could be proven or disproven.
wk_end|5 years ago
If you accept the a priori/posteriori distinction, you're abusing words to claim that pure mathematics - the classic example of a priori knowledge! - is a posteriori. A priori knowledge isn't knowledge that we come to know is true through an experience (like proving something), it's knowledge that is true regardless of any particular experience.
amw-zero|5 years ago
And we do not know for certain that math is objective truth. If we did, there would be no philosophy of mathematics.
Reasoning within mathematics is objective, because math is a formal system. But to think that we know anything about anything is frankly pure arrogance. We don’t know why we are here or what our universe even is at a fundamental level. Math is a human-imposed construct that we use to try and make sense of it all.
jbay808|5 years ago
Ok, I might accept that math isn't a formal system, but what do you think a proof is?
dwohnitmok|5 years ago
Indeed Godel's completeness (not incompleteness) theorem (which applies to most mathematical settings such as anything that uses ZFC) is a strong indication that everything mathematicians would care to prove is in fact provable.
n4r9|5 years ago
Supermancho|5 years ago
Like most proofs, there are statements which we know are true within constraints to a domain (axioms).