[skoodge]

That depends on what you mean by "assigns uniquely", "rule" and "doesn't work", which is why this question is deeply entangled with philosophical issues that cannot be settled purely mathematically.

It is obvious that all expressions in the English language can be ordered from smallest to largest and lexicographically, which makes these expressions trivially countable. We can thus assign natural numbers to real numbers by assigning numbers to their expressions in a natural or formal language, which will of course include infinitely many expressions that are just nonsense descriptions and infinitely many expressions that map to the same real number. These expressions will also include any possible expressions of Cantor's or other diagonalized numbers. In such a sense then, we can trivially "count" the real numbers unless we hold the philosophical view that there are real numbers that are not expressible. This is where it becomes a question of philosophy of mathematics, not mathematics proper.

You can of course object that what you meant by "assigns uniquely" is an unambiguous 1:1 mapping and that including any number of nonsense descriptions misses the point. In that case giving a "rule doesn't work" because the diagonalized number always escapes the proposed system of counting the numbers, but only because the diagonalized number is allowed to 'parasitically' depend on the totality of the system, but is excluded from the system (or else it would diagonalize itself and become ambiguous at that particular decimal place). This particular viewpoint is tied to a particular philosophical position, however, and not all positions in the philosophy of mathematics will agree with it.

This all might seem trivial or even nonsensical (as philosophy of mathematics so often appears), but I merely want to point out that the 'uncountability' of the real numbers is not a consequence of the set of the natural numbers being 'too small' to hold all the real numbers, because they are 'large enough' to assign numbers to all possible descriptions all real numbers that will ever be expressed in language. Uncountability is a consequence of a view that restricts Cantor's diagonalized number from the set of the countable number but still considers this diagonalized number to be a real number (which again is only unambiguously defined if it is not allowed to diagonalize itself). There are however other possible philosophical viewpoints which either include the diagonalized number in the set of countable numbers (at the cost of including ambiguous or paradoxical numbers) or reject the view that Cantor's diagonalized number should be considered to be a real number in the first place.

tl;dr: Yeah, you can always name a real number for which a particular counting rule does not work, but only as long as there is agreement regarding the philosophical underpinnings. Most mathematicians can probably be considered platonists and from their standpoint the real numbers are obviously uncountable, but that is by no means true for all positions in the philosophy of mathematics.

[pdonis]

> We can thus assign natural numbers to real numbers by assigning numbers to their expressions in a natural or formal language

This doesn't work because not all real numbers have expressions in a natural or formal language. This is easily shown by an obvious variation on Cantor's diagonal proof, applied to your lexicographically ordered list of expressions in any natural or formal language.

[skoodge]

Sure, that is why I wrote:

> In such a sense then, we can trivially "count" the real numbers unless we hold the philosophical view that there are real numbers that are not expressible. This is where it becomes a question of philosophy of mathematics, not mathematics proper.

I'm not disagreeing with your interpretation of Cantor's diagonal proof, I'm merely pointing out that this interpretation depends on a very specific philosophical view of mathematics, namely the platonist view that the real numbers exist independently from their expressions in any natural or formal language and that it makes sense to say that there are real numbers that are not expressible.

And yeah, nearly all working mathematicians will agree with this view and from their perspective the real numbers are uncountable, period, and you are right that what I sketched "doesn't work".

But I think it's important to remember that there are or could be alternative philosophical views of mathematics that lead to a different interpretation, which will reject not the mathematical validity of Cantor's diagonal proof, but rather its usefulness or relevance. After all, how can you convince someone that there are real numbers that are not expressible? By their very nature they cannot be practically used in any calculation, so how could you convince someone who is not convinced by this philosophical assumption of Cantor's diagonal proof?

In other words, Cantor's diagonal proof cannot prove that there are real numbers that are not expressible, because the proof only makes (philosophical) sense if you accept this viewpoint in the first place.

[blacklion]

Numbers exist only in our heads. They are results of formal symbol manipulations.

What does "to exist" mean for number which can not be written down as some formula (in broad sense of this word) in formal language?

[btilly]

Your "easily shown" is only easily shown if you're sloppy.

If you're careful, it can't be shown at all.

As I already pointed out, if classical mathematics is consistent, then constructivism must be as well. Therefore if you think that you've found a logical flaw in constructivism, the mistake must be in your own thinking.

[ummonk]

If you're claiming the existence of entities that you are unable to identify or express, you're veering into religion and faith.