Is it just me, or does it look like black holes hovering over the planets?
I guess that is to be expected, if a planet with black background is used.
Pseudo-scientific question: Could black holes have anything to do with something being inverted?
For anyone else who's mind went blank trying to work out just what sort of "inverse" can be applied to a circle. It's interesting math and the diagrams are worth checking out, some very nice use of interactivity to assist with understanding the nature of the function.
But definitely not the kind of inverse I was expecting.
I went to "A function that's equal everywhere not the circle you define in the function", some sort of f(x,y) = !f(circle) by way some sort of algebraic geometry math. Then I was trying to work out if it meant something else... then I loaded it and was genuinely surprised to find its a much more specific kind of inverse that never even occurred to me.
This article is interesting but not rigorous I think.
* The inverse of a geometric shape makes no sense. We only inverse operations.
* aa^-1 = 1 only if you consider the multiplication over reals.
* 1/0 is not equal to infinity.
Because the article is interesting but some people might be put off by the first few sentences, I suggest to had a disclaimer that this article lean on edutainment to the detriment of rigorous mathematics.
Your assertions are simply not true in the context of complex analysis. It is common to use "inverse" to refer to the multiplicative inverse as shorthand (though potentially confusing). a a^-1 = 1 is absolutely and uncontroversially applicable to any complex number. It is common and natural to extend to complex plane to include a single point at infinity (known as the extended complex plane, see e.g. https://mathworld.wolfram.com/ExtendedComplexPlane.html ). When you are working in the extended complex plane, 1/0 does equal infinity.
It depends on your definitions and which mathematical objects you are working with. The notions in the blog post are not something the author invented themselves.
This is it. Inverse is a property of functions or other relational operators, not "static" individual objects. You need a direction in order to invert it.
As long as, C*Cinv = I, where C is the circle, Cinv is the inverse of circle, and I the identity. You're right. C, I, and * are entirely up in the air.
The dymaxion projection of the globe is one of my favorites and is essentially what an unbroken singular peel/shell of an orange would look like, centered on the North Pole
I interpreted the question myself from another angle: a circle is a function where every f(x) is an equal linear distance to an arbitrary fixed point z. So, the "inverse" to this function could be a function where every f(x) must have a different linear distance to z.
OP's equation 1.7 suggests something to me that wasn't highlighted.
Centered at the origin in R2, I expected inverse of r times e^iTheta to be be 1/r times e^-iTheta. Their product is then 1. I believe that is in equation 1.7 .
For that apparently special case, points on a larger-than-unit circle map to points on a smaller-than-unit circle.
You're thinking of the inverse of the function. There's also a lot hidden in your function as generating a circle from an angle requires sin and cos functions. These are repeating functions so asin and acos don't result necessarily represent a single angle (e.g. if 1.5pi is returned, does it mean 1.5pi, 3.5pi or 5.5pi). Similarly, if you invert the formula for the unit circle, taking the square-root of the terms results in both positive and negative values.
This article is instead talking about the inverse per the identity a * 1/a = 1.
IMO the opposite of a curve is an angle. One is smooth, the other disjoint such that zooming in on a curve flattens it, but zooming in on an angle makes no change. A circle is a curve that comes back around to the starting point, closing itself. The opposite of closed is open.
Therefore I propose that the inverse of the unit circle is something like the (open) region around two intersecting line segments at the origin.
It is convenient to posit, or "define" a (unique) point at infinity which is the inverse of 0. That way, a lot of propositions work out without extra special cases. It was misleading of the author to just say "pretend infinity is a real number".
yesenadam|4 years ago
https://www.adamponting.com/inside-out/
Related: Not Knot, 1991 Thurston-ish short film about knots and knot complements - "the space where the knot isn't".
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zd_HGjH7QZo
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Not_Knot
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Knot_complement
prox|4 years ago
zelphirkalt|4 years ago
dylan604|4 years ago
quantum_mcts|4 years ago
http://bl.ocks.org/KKostya/6075142 http://bl.ocks.org/KKostya/6066548
Draw rectangle/circle on the right pane
techdragon|4 years ago
But definitely not the kind of inverse I was expecting.
I went to "A function that's equal everywhere not the circle you define in the function", some sort of f(x,y) = !f(circle) by way some sort of algebraic geometry math. Then I was trying to work out if it meant something else... then I loaded it and was genuinely surprised to find its a much more specific kind of inverse that never even occurred to me.
skywal_l|4 years ago
* The inverse of a geometric shape makes no sense. We only inverse operations.
* aa^-1 = 1 only if you consider the multiplication over reals.
* 1/0 is not equal to infinity.
Because the article is interesting but some people might be put off by the first few sentences, I suggest to had a disclaimer that this article lean on edutainment to the detriment of rigorous mathematics.
topaz0|4 years ago
kzrdude|4 years ago
For example you can find Riemann Sphere in wikipedia - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann_sphere
unknown|4 years ago
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ghufran_syed|4 years ago
TuringTest|4 years ago
ww520|4 years ago
alisonkisk|4 years ago
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debbiedowner|4 years ago
Molehill: reciprocal of all points in a circle on the complex plane.
stazz1|4 years ago
weatherwoman|4 years ago
charcircuit|4 years ago
kikokikokiko|4 years ago
alisonkisk|4 years ago
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a9h74j|4 years ago
OP's equation 1.7 suggests something to me that wasn't highlighted.
Centered at the origin in R2, I expected inverse of r times e^iTheta to be be 1/r times e^-iTheta. Their product is then 1. I believe that is in equation 1.7 .
For that apparently special case, points on a larger-than-unit circle map to points on a smaller-than-unit circle.
pixelbath|4 years ago
w10-1|4 years ago
bally0241|4 years ago
emschlr|4 years ago
fizzynut|4 years ago
If my function to generate a circle is a simple for loop 0 to 2 PI.
Then the inverse of that maps each point on the circle back to a line with points between 0 and 2 PI.
smoyer|4 years ago
This article is instead talking about the inverse per the identity a * 1/a = 1.
amelius|4 years ago
javajosh|4 years ago
Therefore I propose that the inverse of the unit circle is something like the (open) region around two intersecting line segments at the origin.
evancoop|4 years ago
unknown|4 years ago
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adamrezich|4 years ago
phemartin|4 years ago
belter|4 years ago
kzrdude|4 years ago
prvc|4 years ago
renewiltord|4 years ago
unknown|4 years ago
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