(no title)
esics6A | 3 years ago
"Article the sixth... The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
Police under the US Constitution have to go before a judge and court and make an Oath under perjury of law describing the items to be seized. There has to be a justification and supported by affirmation meaning evidence and supporting facts. In the case of the building that was seized it was operating a perfectly legal business under state law. It had the necessary licenses and permits. There needs to be a direct challenge against this type of extra-judicial seizure in the US Supreme Court as it's a clear challenge to the entire operation of the rule of law and legal system.
arcticbull|3 years ago
Which leads to some pretty hilarious case titles:
"United States v. Article Consisting of 50,000 Cardboard Boxes More or Less, Each Containing One Pair of Clacker Balls"
[edit] "South Dakota v. Fifteen Impounded Cats"
[edit] "United States v. One Solid Gold Object in Form of a Rooster"
In my opinion this tactic should be illegal.
[edit] As far as I know this only really exists in the US, and in Canadian admiralty law (so, only in the US).
[1] https://home.treasury.gov/policy-issues/terrorism-and-illici...
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/In_rem_jurisdiction
some_random|3 years ago
cameldrv|3 years ago
Where things went off the rails is when they started applying this to cases where the owner of the property was known, and that owner should have their normal fourth amendment rights.
Buttons840|3 years ago
mometsi|3 years ago
The hack they came up with is to just disable type checking and pass in whatever object they have available.
TFA describes the inevitable runtime errors
dimal|3 years ago
marcosdumay|3 years ago
That practice should be a crime, by itself.
pmyteh|3 years ago
The difficulty comes when you stretch the concept like with civil forfeiture. It's not even necessary: England and Wales has the Proceeds of Crime Act to allow seizure and forfeiture of criminal property and all the cases under that are ordinary in personam actions between the state and the putative criminal.
theptip|3 years ago
Sohcahtoa82|3 years ago
Any sane court system would believe that charging an inanimate object with a crime is beyond bonkers.
JPKab|3 years ago
whiddershins|3 years ago
Bringing a civil suit doesn’t change the fundamental fact of this being unreasonable seizure. It’s seizure. And it’s unreasonable.
Naming it something else or inventing a process for doing it doesn’t change reality.
the_only_law|3 years ago
Hope it has a good lawyer then I guess?
r3trohack3r|3 years ago
thelock85|3 years ago
Property is an asset, not a corporation (though could a corp. be an asset of a holding company?) but philosophically-speaking, "property itself as a defendant" and "corporation as a legal individual" seems connected.
8note|3 years ago
fnordpiglet|3 years ago
https://www.yalelawjournal.org/feature/the-constitutionality...
jjoonathan|3 years ago
> The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
oceanghost|3 years ago
martincmartin|3 years ago
There has been, and the Supreme Court upheld it. As I recall, they didn't even bother hearing the case.
s1artibartfast|3 years ago
vmception|3 years ago
1) change all state laws to nuke the practice
2) leverage the practice much more heavily such that more important and influential people want to nuke it
zugi|3 years ago
Even that's just a start. According to https://www.forbes.com/sites/nicksibilla/2018/12/19/cops-can..., when one state banned civil forfeiture, it was so profitable that several cities kept doing it in violation of the state law, until courts finally forced them to stop 3 years later.
So next the federal DEA stepped in. Since the federal government still practices civil forfeiture in the state, local police agencies are encouraged to tip off the DEA to any property that might be federally seizable, and then the DEA pays kickbacks to the local police force that provided the tip.
This all sounds like racketeering and conspiracy to me. But you see, when the federal government does it, it's NOT racketeering and conspiracy.
coryfklein|3 years ago
How would you say we should handle this scenario? We have a good reason to believe that the property is actually mine, and also that if it is not seized soon then it will be lost forever. (Since, as we all know, court rulings happen on much longer time scales.)
If you have an overly aggressive civil forfeiture law then the police can seize things when they shouldn't. But if you have none, then don't you hamstring law enforcement unnecessarily, and instead provide greater incentive for crime?
jimrandomh|3 years ago
Police don't need civil forfeiture to hold evidence in advance of pressing charges, or to recover stolen property and return it to its rightful owner. They only need civil forfeiture if they intend to keep the car for themselves.
jdkee|3 years ago
Animats|3 years ago
dragonwriter|3 years ago
You are confusing originalism with textualism (there is an argument that the current Court’s dominant philosophy [or mode of rationalization, for the more cynical] is both originalist and textualist, but your particular argument is more of an appeal to textualism than originalism.)
zerocrates|3 years ago
And all the stuff about particularity of warrants is nice, but it doesn't actually lay out when warrants are required.
Sohcahtoa82|3 years ago
"Unreasonable" is a highly subjective term and should not exist in legal documents.
throwaway894345|3 years ago
unknown|3 years ago
[deleted]
anotheracctfo|3 years ago
thaway2839|3 years ago
Even ignoring any say the rest of the Constitution has on civil forfeiture, even the parts that you quote do not prevent civil forfeitures on their own.
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated"
The rub here is "unreasonable". The fact that the constitution explicitly proscribes "unreasonable" seizures means it also allows "reasonable" seizures.
So there is no clear answer here because unreasonable is completely subjective.
Retric|3 years ago
hn_throwaway_99|3 years ago
The fact that civil forfeiture is so contrary to all the other definitions of "reasonable" that courts have emphasized over the years should make it a clear violation of the Constitution.
zmgsabst|3 years ago
> The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable … seizures, shall not be violated, … but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the … things to be seized.
From the article:
> In a response to an interrogatory filed in the Kozbials' subsequent lawsuit against Highland Park, a city police officer answered "none" when asked to identify any predicate felony offenses justifying the seizure.
What was the probable cause supported by oath or affirmation?
tialaramex|3 years ago
We presume the jury are reasonable people (unfortunately the US also screws up how juries work) and so if they have a consensus that must be reasonable.
The UK uses "double reasonableness" in it's anti-tax avoidance law. It says the jury should ask themselves if any reasonable person might have done this anyway. If your jurors can't conceive of how even one other reasonable person could think what you did made sense, except that it reduced tax liability, then in fact it did not reduce liability, your avoidance scheme doesn't work.
twh270|3 years ago
UncleEntity|3 years ago
Yes, a reasonable seizure is either through eminent domain (with just compensation) or the result of a criminal proceeding as punishment.
Unreasonable would be seizures with no criminal proceedings or just compensation.
avs733|3 years ago
The constitution describes people's property and makes people subject to it. Suing a car or a pile of cash is farcical - because the constitution doesn't have authority over objects, it has authority over the people who own and possess the objects.
Its the same basic factual explanation as to the difference between two consenting adults and adults and children/animals that seems to befuddle those who don't like gay rights.
unknown|3 years ago
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