Only by some measures and only with the caveat that the methods used to approximate wealth distribution in pre-revolutionary France are not directly analogous to the methods used to measure it today which makes direct comparisons messy. For example, other measures built around the gini coefficient would suggest that now is more equal than pre-revoluitonary France (with the caveat that those methods are also imprecise and built on calculated assumptions). Secondly, my comment is about wealth+power. Despite his wealth and connections, Bezos doesn't have nearly the political power that the second richest man in pre-revolutionary France wielded.
No comments yet.