[xnoreq]

Anything exists because of survivor bias? That's backwards logic / you've missed/evaded the question.

It's not like asking P(A|A), it's not even asking why P(A) > P(N). It's asking why P(A) > 0, which it evidently is.

Statistically, one could make the argument that there are infinite possibilities of A(nything) and just one of N(othing), so the odds are stacked infinitely high against nothingness.

[User23]

> Statistically, one could make the argument that there are infinite possibilities of A(nything) and just one of N(othing), so the odds are stacked infinitely high against nothingness.

This reminds me of the classic joke that all probabilities are 50/50. Either a thing happens or it doesn't.

[xnoreq]

In frequentist statistics it's either 1 or 0 after the experiment (dice roll, card flip or universe creation). Either it happened or it didn't.