top | item 32421096

(no title)

ixs | 3 years ago

There’s an argument to be made that the nazi Party never won an actual free election.

https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/hitler-was-not-voted... is a good example of the reasoning.

discuss

order

pdonis|3 years ago

Sure, just stipulate that any election with results you don't like isn't "an actual free election". No True Scotsman is indeed alive and well.

ixs|3 years ago

Uhm. That’s a nice straw man to support the “no true Scotsman” fallacy. Well done. :-)

I did a bit of digging on Wikipedia. And based on the description in https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/March_1933_German_federal_el... I think the claim that the ‘33 election wasn’t a free election isn’t baseless.

Having your fascist enforcers “monitor” the election, helping elderly people to the voting booths and “helping” them to vote correctly all seem to be indicators that the election is fishy.

And even then, the fascist party didn’t even get a majority…