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cruegge | 3 years ago
Edit: however, consistent second order theories don't always have a model. In first order, if S is an undecideable statement in theory T, then both T+S and T+!S have models, both of which are models for T, so undecideable statements always come from multiple models. But that does not need to be the case in second order, so your claim "it is independent from the axioms, i.e. there exist multiple models" is not neccessarily true, i.e. there may be cases when decideability of some statement fails in a theory with a unique model. Or is there another argument for your claim?
Forgive me for spamming questions, I just try to understand how these things fit together. But maybe we should just stick to first order, since everything else is too weird anyway.
cruegge|3 years ago
bo1024|3 years ago