I'd like to know why there is a difference in the final loss at all. If the two networks had the same architecture, used the same loss function, and had random uniform initialization, then 1000 epochs should have them converging on very similar final loss values. Especially if one was able to converge to 3e-4.
sva_|3 years ago
Clicking on their blog, the first entry is
> "How are variables in the dataset for machine learning?"[0]
That doesn't even seem like a valid English sentence to me.
Searching the sentences from the text will send you to various sources from which they were taken without being given credit.
In fact you can find plenty of sites who are seemingly recycling the the same sentences used in this blog. It's pretty bizarre.
[0] https://www.neuraldesigner.com/blog/type-uses-variables
sva_|3 years ago
> Neural Designer [...] reaches a mean squared error of 0.023.
> The following table summarizes the the[sic] most important metrics that the two machine learning platforms yielded .
[omits MSE]
They should train both to the same loss and then compare.
BobbyJo|3 years ago
timcavel|3 years ago
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