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dalben | 2 years ago
From what I remember, the ePrivacy-GDPR cookie mismatch (consent as the only allowed legal basis for cookies) is due to ePrivacy being older than the GDPR and not intentional.
Article 5 (Principles) is always a good mention - just having a legal basis is not enough, you always need to respect these principles (such as lawfulness, fairness and transparency).
The dig at pseudonomyzation not being enough is great. It's a personal pet peeve of mine. Pseudonomized data is still personal data!
The GDPR does not prescribe how to anonymize data. It just says "as long as someone can identify a person, then it's personal data." For example, you might think that aggregating based on city is enough to anonymize, but my nephew was at one point the sole person living in a village - that would have directly identified him. Likewise, stripping the last octet of IP addresses might not be enough if I personally own a /24. It's all about context.
The biggest thing I personally learned, was that any solution claiming to be "GDPR proof" probably is not compliant.
pilcrowonpaper|2 years ago
I started researching this last weekend, reading through the GDPR, the ePrivacy Directive, and tons of related court rulings (with the help of Google Translate). 2002/58/EC and EC 2016/679 is engrained into my brain now. I was so nervous releasing to the public, but I breathed a sign of relieve after reading your comment.
fasteddie|2 years ago
shkkmo|2 years ago
This simply isn't data companies should be allowed to collect without meaningful consent.
seydor|2 years ago
unknown|2 years ago
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