The question is "how long has it been since the big bang." It's an important and relevant question for cosmology and physics. It isn't really a stance on the "beginning of time," which may have started long before this moment, but it is the start of the universe as far as physics is concerned.
chinabot|2 years ago
TheOtherHobbes|2 years ago
We don't know anything at all about the physics of infinitely small spacetimes, because we don't have a fundamental physics of spacetime at all.
GR is a descriptive approximation of the behaviour of spacetime, but says nothing about the fundamentals that generate that behaviour.
31337Logic|2 years ago
Angostura|2 years ago
wtcactus|2 years ago
MrYellowP|2 years ago
slt2021|2 years ago
The big bang could not create universe from nothing, it could only spread matter from a singularity into ever expanding universe (time-space).
is it even possible, to have entirety of universe matter and energy in a single point?
anon291|2 years ago
fnordpiglet|2 years ago
malux85|2 years ago
And since we know that gravity affects the rate of flow of time, wouldn’t the rate of time be enormously distorted earlier universe?
I’m not trained in any of this, so hopefully there are greater minds here who can help me understand
ben_w|2 years ago
As I understand it, that’s an approximation for Euclidean space because the area of a sphere is also proportional to the square of the radius in such a space, but it’s not true of non-Euclidean spaces like in GR because the area-radius relation is different.
IIRC, the cosmic microwave background has a gamma factor of about 1100, so the area of that shell is the same as one 1100 times closer or 1/1100^2 times the area as a Euclidean sphere with that radius.
> And since we know that gravity affects the rate of flow of time, wouldn’t the rate of time be enormously distorted earlier universe?
Time did indeed slow down then compared to now, although it’s not entirely obvious to me that this has any physical interpretation when it happens “everywhere”: https://youtu.be/66V4RSmDqYM
candiodari|2 years ago
So there must have been a time when electromagnetism, the weak and even the strong force just didn't exist. They couldn't. So particles would just have totally ignored those forces.
We don't know if gravity is the same, but ... why wouldn't it. Though of course according to relativity gravity just wouldn't care, but that just raises a lot more questions than it answers.
ajross|2 years ago
Well... yes it is, in the rigorous sense of "time" defined by general relativity. There's no "before" for a singularity. It may not be the whole story, but whatever metaphysical notion defines the "before/beyond/outside/why" that drives the big bang, it's not a place on the "time" axis of spacetime.
mathematicaster|2 years ago
Natsu|2 years ago
How does that work for black holes? It seems like there would be a 'before' they formed in the time dimension of our universe, if not within the singularity itself.
davorak|2 years ago
At least what we currently spend most of time studying/researching in physics right now. We can hope to expand beyond that given enough time.
philipov|2 years ago
There might literally not be enough time to expand beyond that, given how cosmological horizons work. Being part of the system we're trying to observe puts some nasty limits on what we can know, even in principle.
moomin|2 years ago
Which is to say that there exist respected papers that outline this scenario in great detail, but there’s precious little observable evidence of a previous universal cycle.
unknown|2 years ago
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