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siegel | 2 years ago

That's not universally true. For most marks, you are right. But for certain particularly "famous" marks, the owner has a potential cause of action for dilution of the owner's mark. Unlike trademark infringement, which requires a showing of likelihood of confusion (which is bolstered by a showing that the two purported mark users serve the same market), trademark dilution does not.

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krasin|2 years ago

thank you. Makes sense.