top | item 37784795

(no title)

riley_dog | 2 years ago

Wouldn't the median be 1? Most folks have 2 legs, but some have 1 or even 0. The median would be 2 if some people had 4 legs.

discuss

order

pil0u|2 years ago

No. To illustrate:

[ 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2 ]

         ^^^
The 5th element is the median.

OJFord|2 years ago

No, what you're getting at is actually exactly why the median is preferred to mean for this sort of thing. The mean is 1.something, it wouldn't round to 1, but you can see how that might happen and be undesirable in other cases.

The median selects the most 'middling' result, it's like the mode (the majority) except sorted and middled: if you had ~as many people with 0 as 2 legs (bimodal), then you'd end up with a median of 1.

sokoloff|2 years ago

If 50.1% of people had 2 legs and 49.9% of people had 0 legs, the median number of legs would be 2, not 1.

The median number of testicles in humans is 2. The mean is slightly over 1.

pc86|2 years ago

Say there's 8,000,000,000 on the planet, you line up starting at #1 with all the people with 0 legs, then all the people with 1, then all the people with 2, then all the people with more than 2.

Person #4,000,000,000 has 2 legs.