top | item 37913399 (no title) louistsi | 2 years ago I definitely disagree given that Marcus Aurelius was writing in an era where "man" in the written word was synonymous with "human", in any context. If you or I said "man" in this time period, certainly we would attribute it as you say. discuss order hn newest hydrok9|2 years ago I think he meant man as in male, given that women were a very distant 2nd class of citizen.
hydrok9|2 years ago I think he meant man as in male, given that women were a very distant 2nd class of citizen.
hydrok9|2 years ago