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louistsi | 2 years ago

I definitely disagree given that Marcus Aurelius was writing in an era where "man" in the written word was synonymous with "human", in any context. If you or I said "man" in this time period, certainly we would attribute it as you say.

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hydrok9|2 years ago

I think he meant man as in male, given that women were a very distant 2nd class of citizen.