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vermarish | 2 years ago

Right. But if you make the notation slightly more explicit, then the integral of L(data, params) over data is 1. This follows from the independence assumption.

So we ARE working with a probability function. Its output can be interpreted as probabilities. It's just that we're maximizing L = P(events | params) with respect to params.

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kgwgk|2 years ago

The likelihood function is a function of params for a fixed value of data and it is not a probability function.

There is another function - a function of data for fixed params - which is a probability density. That doesn’t change the fact that the likelihood function isn’t.

331c8c71|2 years ago

The independence has nothing do with the integral being 1 to be honest. You could write a model where the observations are not independent but the (multivariate) integral over their domain will still be 1.

vermarish|2 years ago

But for such a model, the joint pdf would not be written simply as a product of each individual pdf. That's what independence provides.