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Alex63
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2 years ago
Slightly off topic, but related: I'm always interested in the different approach to public "right of ways" in the US (and Canada) versus the UK. Given that the concept of public right of way was well established in the UK before the colonial period, why didn't the colonies recognize rights of way based on well-established use? Based on my limited knowledge of the US and Canada, I'm not aware of any State or Province that recognizes the right of the public to cross private land on established paths/trails in the way that is recognized in the UK.
wesleyd|2 years ago
All thanks to the hunting lobby, I expect.
ryandrake|2 years ago
volkl48|2 years ago
dylan604|2 years ago
Alex63|2 years ago
saagarjha|2 years ago
mjh2539|2 years ago
I think there's probably many reasons, but here's a few I can think of:
1. The trails and such that warrant these rights never existed in the first place. 2. The rights come from long-established customs, which again, never got the chance to get going in the United States. 3. The legal/juridical establishment in the United States tended to care more about protecting the rights of property owners than protecting the freedom to travel (in this limited respect).
Animats|2 years ago
There's another amusing historical accident - Blackstone.[1] Blackstone's Commentaries[2] are a self-contained four volume set on how the English legal system worked. They had a strong influence on the US legal system. Most of the drafters of the Constitution read them. There were few if any law libraries, but many copies of Blackstone.
Blackstone was a property rights absolutist. He wrote:
"So great moreover is the regard of the law for private property, that it will not authorize the least violation of it; no, not even for the general good of the whole community. If a new road, for instance, were to be made through the grounds of a private person, it might perhaps be extensively beneficial to the public; but the law permits no man, or set of men, to do this without consent of the owner of the land. In vain may it be urged, that the good of the individual ought to yield to that of the community; for it would be dangerous to allow any private man, or even any public tribunal, to be the judge of this common good, and to decide whether it be expedient or no."[3]
This is further than English law goes. US law arose from that interpretation. That's the power of writing the most widely read book on the subject.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Blackstone
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commentaries_on_the_Laws_of_En...
[3] https://press-pubs.uchicago.edu/founders/documents/v1ch16s5....
bombcar|2 years ago
b112|2 years ago
And in the winters of 200 years ago, the lakes became frozen roads.
Yet part of it may also be, that land wss apportioned in large, organized chunks in many cases. Given to settlers, with spaces for roads as part of the plan.
Europe had many places where there was no way to get around, for there were no roads!
alistairSH|2 years ago
lozenge|2 years ago
strictnein|2 years ago
For large swaths of the Americas, these are all different groups, many of which seized the land through violence.
It's something people like to throw out as an argument, but it falls on its face under the most basic of scrutiny. The entire earth was "stolen" many, many times by this definition, making it nonsensical.
undersuit|2 years ago
chimeracoder|2 years ago
Because that would have been at odds with colonists' goals of seizing the land from the people whom it previously belonged to, and who were using it.