Why are you assuming that rules weren’t followed? Is there any reason to suspect this? I’m not the greatest fan of the police by far, but it’s not like this (seizing assets without prior conviction) is a novel or anything but standard procedure happening in the frame of clearly defined rules. Should a murderer run free up to his conviction, even when there’s strong evidence of his crimes? Shouldn’t the police seize assets of drug cartels at the moment they can instead of years later when everybody is convicted?
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