(no title)
hkhanna | 1 year ago
It's sort of like the idea that if the universe is infinitely big and mass and energy are randomly distributed throughout the universe, then an exact copy of you on an exact copy of Earth is out there somewhere.
This property of infinity has always fascinated me, so I'm very curious for where the logical fallacy might be.
n2d4|1 year ago
A number that contains all other numbers infinitely many times (uniformly) would be called normal, but no one has managed to prove this for pi yet. In fact, no one even managed to prove that pi doesn't contain only 0s and 1s like the above after the X-th digit.
andrewla|1 year ago
constantcrying|1 year ago
No. Example: 0.1011011101111011111... does never repeat, yet there is no 2 in there, neither is there 00 in there.
onion2k|1 year ago
The question is really 'Does every series of numbers of arbitrary finite length appear in pi?' I can't answer that because I'm not a mathematician, but I also can't dismiss it, because I'm not a mathematician. It sounds like a fair question to me.
fragmede|1 year ago
dist-epoch|1 year ago
Put another way, the program which searches those works of art in the digits of pi will never finish (for a sufficiently complex work of art). And if it never finishes, does it actually exist?
constantcrying|1 year ago
Citation needed.
Believing in real numbers requires you to believe in far more than infinity. How many physicists reject real numbers?