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chomskyole | 1 year ago
It absolutely doesn't. Historically we judged laws as violent. Germany stands as an example.
> Please don’t dilute the term “violence,” or we’ll have to find another word to describe intentional harm using physical force.
Causing intentional harm is a pretty good definition of violence, don't you think?
EDIT: for instance paying someone to do physical harm. How would you assess this?
Method-X|1 year ago
And then the next step is diluting the meaning of the word “harm.” Is hurting someone’s feelings causing harm?
chomskyole|1 year ago
Tell me, if I outsource the physical act of harm, say by paying someone to beat someone else up, would you say I am not violent?
vouaobrasil|1 year ago