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crotobloste | 1 year ago

The historical criteria for Spain seems dubious. It posits the ahistorical existence of a "Kingdom of Spain" from 1479 on, when this political entity didn't come to be until several centuries later (despite some monarchs using the title "King of Spain". For that matter, the current Spanish King holds the title of "King of Jerusalem", but to my awareness no Kingdom of Jerusalem actually exists today).

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niea_11|1 year ago

The same thing for Morocco, it started being called Kingdom of Morocco only after the end of the french protectorate in the 50s.