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sympil | 1 year ago

Why “of course”? It’s not clear to me why that would the case. For instance, we wouldn’t expect the top 10% to account for 50% of all food consumption simply becuase they control 50% of the wealth.

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cratermoon|1 year ago

Yes we could. Wealthy people eat more expensive food. Sometimes insanely more expensive. While the majority of Americans are debating whether or not to buy a dozen eggs this week, a wealthy man is spending a million dollars a year to feed themselves. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HyABU75DKjA

sympil|1 year ago

I said food consumption not amount spent on food. The two are different. The top 10% don’t consume 50% of the caloric intake of the nation.

ninetyninenine|1 year ago

Maybe it's not clear to you because you're one of the wealthy people?

sympil|1 year ago

Why should control of 50% wealth equate to 50% of all consumption? Why not 70% of consumption or 40%? What is the reason that the two percentages are expected to be the same?