Why “of course”? It’s not clear to me why that would the case. For instance, we wouldn’t expect the top 10% to account for 50% of all food consumption simply becuase they control 50% of the wealth.
Yes we could.
Wealthy people eat more expensive food.
Sometimes insanely more expensive.
While the majority of Americans are debating whether or not to buy a dozen eggs this week,
a wealthy man is spending a million dollars a year to feed themselves. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HyABU75DKjA
Why should control of 50% wealth equate to 50% of all consumption? Why not 70% of consumption or 40%? What is the reason that the two percentages are expected to be the same?
cratermoon|1 year ago
sympil|1 year ago
ninetyninenine|1 year ago
sympil|1 year ago