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indiosmo | 11 months ago

I suppose the argument is that while the robot itself might not have run over anyone, it might have caused someone else on the road to do it.

So if we're just measuring how many crashes the robot has been involved in, we can't account for how many crashes the robot indirectly caused.

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ajross|11 months ago

> I suppose the argument is that while the robot itself might not have run over anyone, it might have caused someone else on the road to do it.

And I repeat, that's a contrived enough scenario that I think you need to come to the table with numbers and evidence if you want to make it. Counting crashes has been The Way Transportation Safety Has Been Done for the better part of a century now and you don't just change methodology midstream because you're afraid of the Robot Overlord in the driver's seat.

Science always has a place at the table. Ludditism does not.

hmmm-i-wonder|11 months ago

I wouldn't say its contrived, but I agree its important to take such questions and back them up with data.

My question is open in that we don't really HAVE data to measure that statement in any meaningful way. The proper response is "that could be valid, we need to find a way to measure it".

Resorting to calling me a luddite because I question whether a metric is really an accurate measure of success (one that I apply to HUMAN drivers as an example first...) really doesn't reflect any sort of scientific approach or method I'm aware of, but feel free to point me to references.