[eclecticfrank]

False, it's simply a requirement.

French law explicitly states that a candidate for an election must not be ineligible by reason of criminal conviction or judicial decision.

Should have thought about messing with EU funds before, I suppose.

[tick_tock_tick]

> French law explicitly states that a candidate for an election must not be ineligible by reason of criminal conviction or judicial decision.

Then French law needs to change; it's simply a requirement.

[OKRainbowKid]

Because some people on HN who most likely are neither French nor lawyers say so?