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tanewishly | 8 months ago
That seems to fall afoul of the Base Rate Fallacy. Eg, consider 2 groups of 10,000 people and testing on A vs B. First group has 9,999 A and 1 B, second has 1 A and 9,999 B. Unless you make your test blatantly ineffective, you're going to have different false positive rates -- irrespectiveof the test's performance.
tripletao|8 months ago
My point is that even if we're willing to trade accuracy for "fairness", it's not possible for any classifier to satisfy both those definitions of fairness. By returning to human judgment they've obfuscated that problem but not solved it.
tanewishly|8 months ago
That illustrates that the given definition cannot hold universally, irrespective of what classifier you dream up. Unless your classifier is not independent from the base rate - that is, a classifier that gets more lenient if there's more fraud in the group. That seems undesirable when considering fairness as a goal.