[adamlett]

Possibly, but what we think of as land ownership today — land as a commodity that can be freely bought and sold, and as something that gives the owner near-total control over how it’s used — is actually a fairly recent development.

In feudal Europe, land could only be “owned” by a lord, and even then it was bound up in obligations both to their superiors and to the peasants working it. There were all sorts of customary rights layered on top: in Denmark, for example, nobles had a monopoly on hunting and timber in their forests, but peasants still had rights to gather firewood, berries, nuts, mushrooms, and so on.

Village fields were also often organized under the open-field system, where land was divided into strips. Each household got a mix of good and poor soil, and in some places those strips were even periodically reallocated to keep things fair. It’s a very different picture from modern private property.

[ahazred8ta]

There were some premodern societies where land possession was very fluid. But. There were plenty of others where land ownership worked almost exactly like today's systems. The oldest clay tablets talk about buying and selling land, systems of laws protecting land ownership, court cases involving land disputes, and surveyors laying out stone boundary markers that were meant to stay put for centuries. Incan quipu cords were records of who owned which piece of land. Asian rice terraces have been individually owned for thousands of years. This urban legend that private property is not an ancient concept is really wonky.

[adamlett]

> There were some premodern societies where land possession was very fluid.

Yes, commons, rotating field systems, and similar arrangements show that.

> But. There were plenty of others where land ownership worked almost exactly like today’s systems.

Not quite. Transactions existed, but they were embedded in systems of obligation and sovereignty — kings, emperors, or lords claimed ultimate rights. That’s a different structure from modern absolute private ownership.

> The oldest clay tablets talk about buying and selling land, systems of laws protecting land ownership, court cases involving land disputes, and surveyors laying out stone boundary markers that were meant to stay put for centuries.

Those records exist, but even in Mesopotamia rulers could reallocate or confiscate land. Ownership wasn’t as secure or absolute as a modern freehold title.

> Incan quipu cords were records of who owned which piece of land.

Quipus tracked obligations and allocations. Land under the Inca was held communally and redistributed, not privately owned.

> Asian rice terraces have been individually owned for thousands of years.

Some land was inherited and sold, but there were also systems of redistribution (for example, the Chinese equal-field system). That’s not the same as permanent, alienable freehold.

> This urban legend that private property is not an ancient concept is really wonky.

It’s not an urban legend. Property has always been a bundle of rights that varied across societies. The modern model of land as a freely tradable commodity giving the holder near-total monopoly is comparatively recent.

[ceejayoz]

> Then, you're arguing for feudalist land ownership customs?

This is a really bad-faith reframing of the parent comment.