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skeezyboy | 5 months ago
so dont worry about what i wrote, whats important was what i was thinking? fair enough
If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset?
edit: https://www.ons.gov.uk/economy/inflationandpriceindices/meth...
methodology states it is based on prices quoted
9rx|5 months ago
Much like, returning to our analogy, how the same distance can be different depending on the observer's frame of reference.
> methodology states it is based on prices quoted
And now read the rest. For "consumer goods and services purchased".