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phreeza | 5 months ago

If they are only orthogonal if they share no bits that are set to one, only one vector, the complement, will be orthogonal, no?

Edit: this is wrong as respondents point out. Clearly I shouldn't be commenting before having my first coffee.

discuss

order

yznovyak|5 months ago

I don't think so. For n=3 you can have 000, 001, 010, 100. All 4 (n+1) are pairwise orthogonal. However, I don't think js8 is correct as it looks like in 2^n you can't have more than n+1 mutually orthogonal vectors, as if any vector has 1 in some place, no other vector can have 1 in the same place.

js8|5 months ago

It's not correct to call them orthogonal because I don't think the definition is a dot product. But that aside, yes, orthogonal basis can only have as much elements as dimensions. The article also mentions that, and then introduces "quasi-orthogonality", which means dot product is not zero but very small. On bitstrings, it would correspond to overlap on only small number of bits. I should have been clearer in my offhand remark. :-)

prerok|5 months ago

Hmm, I think one correction: is (0,0,0) actually a vector? I think that, by definition, an n-dimentional space can have at most n vectors which are all orthogonal to one another.

asplake|5 months ago

By the original definition, they can share bits that are set to zero and still be orthogonal. Think of the bits as basis vectors – if they have none in common, they are orthogonal.

js8|5 months ago

For example, 1010 and 0101 are orthogonal, but 1010 and 0011 are not (share the 3rd bit). Though calling them orthogonal is not quite right.

prerok|5 months ago

Why not? The 1010 and 0101 are orthogonal.