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sobiolite | 5 months ago
I don't quite understand this objection? If I won the lottery at odds of 10 million to 1, you'd say that was a very lucky purchase. But if it turned out I bought 10 million tickets, then that context would surely be important for interpreting what happened, even if the odds of that specific ticket winning would be unchanged?
bitshiftfaced|5 months ago
They start with a prior (very low probability), I'm assuming they use the implied probabilities from the Elo differences, and then update that prior based on the wins. That's enough to find the posterior they're interested in, without needing to look outside the winning streak.
Archelaos|5 months ago
I think the problem lies in the antecedent. Given all chess tournaments played, how often would we observe such a winning streak on average? If the number of winning streaks is near the average, we have no indication of cheating. If it is considerably lower or higher, some people were cheating (when lower, than the opponents).
Then the question is, whether the numbers of winning streaks of one person are unusually high. If we would for example expect aprox. 10 winning streaks, but observe 100, we can conclude that aprox. 90 were cheating. The problem with this is that the more people cheat, the more likely we are to suspect an honest person of cheating as well.
Again, this would be different if the number of winning streaks for a particular person were unusually high.
jonahx|5 months ago
nextaccountic|5 months ago
oersted|5 months ago
What they are doing here is sampling the data after the fact, and obviously one needs to take a uniformly random sample of a dataset for any statistical analysis done on it to be representative.
AlecBG|5 months ago
gus_massa|5 months ago
bregma|5 months ago
sema4hacker|5 months ago