(no title)
jkrshnmenon | 4 months ago
Does it imply that some for some functions F(x) = y, you can compute x given the value of y without computing the inverse of F ?
If so, what constraints does F need to meet for this ?
jkrshnmenon | 4 months ago
Does it imply that some for some functions F(x) = y, you can compute x given the value of y without computing the inverse of F ?
If so, what constraints does F need to meet for this ?
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