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readams | 3 months ago

In these modern times of ours, the word literally has taken on a new meaning, which is "not literally but with emphasis." This seems like the most likely explanation.

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EdwardCoffin|3 months ago

Even if that's the intended meaning of literally, it is still a reckless exaggeration. I'm pretty sure that Stephenson's endings are no more abrupt than some of Shakespeare's (check out Hamlet and Macbeth) or some of Frank Herbert's (see Dune and Children of Dune), and I never hear anyone go out of their way to describe either of them as being unable to write endings.

hnmullany|3 months ago

Everything from Stephenson after Anathem is an unremitting slog. He needs an editor who won't back down from telling him he needs to cut a third of his pages.

disgruntledphd2|3 months ago

> some of Frank Herbert's (see Dune and Children of Dune),

I mean, Dune does in fact end mid-story, which is probably worse.

howenterprisey|3 months ago

I interpret the sense of "literally" here in the opposite way, i.e. without it the sentence may be taken to mean that the books metaphorically stop mid-sentence, but with it, they're saying that it's non-metaphorical and they really do. It would be bizarre wording otherwise.

MangoToupe|3 months ago

Hard to believe this when it's such a cut and dry claim about text. What does exaggeration even imply in that context?

layer8|3 months ago

“Literally” is commonly used as emphasis, but not as hyperbole. So it’s still a misleading misrepresentation just the same.