[wpollock]

If it's not a breaking change, why would a unit test fail as a result, whether or not using mocks/fakes for the code not under test? Unit tests should test the contract of a unit of code. Testing implementation details is better handled with assertions, right?

If the code being mocked changes its invariants the code under test that depends on that needs to be carefully re-examined. A failing unit test will alert one to that situation.

(I'm not being snarky, I don't understand your point and I want to.)

[akoboldfrying]

The problem occurs when the mock is incomplete. Suppose:

1. Initially codeUnderTest() calls a dependency's dep.getFoos() method, which returns a list of Foos. This method is expensive, even if there are no Foos to return.

2. Calling the real dep.getFoos() is awkward, so we mock it for tests.

3. Someone changes codeUnderTest() to first call dep.getNumberOfFoos(), which is always quick, and subsequently call dep.getFoos() only if the first method's return value is nonzero. This speeds up the common case in which there are no Foos to process.

4. The test breaks because dep.getNumberOfFoos() has not been mocked.

You could argue that the original test creator should have defensively also mocked dep.getNumberOfFoos() -- but this quickly becomes an argument that the complete functionality of dep should be mocked.