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cjpearson | 1 month ago
Celsius and Fahrenheit doesn't work as an analogy because the rate does not change over time as it does with currencies.
cjpearson | 1 month ago
Celsius and Fahrenheit doesn't work as an analogy because the rate does not change over time as it does with currencies.
xvedejas|1 month ago
embedding-shape|1 month ago
I don't understand this question, are you asking if material goods and services in Europe, which uses EUR, "somewhat" follows the S&P, a US stock market index?
nbadg|1 month ago
There may be some offset for goods imported from the US, but that's a minority of consumer goods globally, and even then, the purchase currency will usually still be the local fiat, and then the attractiveness of the US index fund still has to be weighed against the performance of non-US-based indices in that same local currency as opportunity cost.
rsynnott|1 month ago
... Wait, why would you expect the price of goods to follow the valuation of, well, any market index, never mind one specific foreign market index? Like, I don't understand why you think that would happen. If anything, you'd expect a minor inverse relationship, at least on a global scale; rapid growth of cost of goods indicates inflation, which implies central bank tightening, which tends to depress stock values a bit.
rsynnott|1 month ago