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anArbitraryOne | 1 month ago
P(A|AAAA) = p^4
P(A|BBBB) = (1-p)^4
Anyway, the apparent strangeness of the tie case comes from the fact that the binomial PMF is symmetric with respect to n (the number of participants) and n-k. PMF = (n choose k) * p^k * (1-p)^(n-k)
So when k = n/2, the symmetry means that the likelihood is identical under p and 1-p, so we're not gaining any information. This is a really good illustration of that; interesting post! (edit: apparently i suck at formatting)
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