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lolc | 1 month ago
The only variation in your English examples is with the prepositions. English is a language where you just do not get that kind of flexibility. Unless, again, you do poetry. Can't even put the inflected pronoun first even though it would be unambiguous:
Him Colonel Mustard killed.
Let's look at this contrived example: The policeman bites the dog.
Notice how in English I can't reverse them easily. Have to get creative: The dog the policeman bites.
Stilted and prone to get misunderstood isn't it? In German, this is possible: Den Hund beisst der Polizist.
Though if you do that, people think you made a mistake and will misunderstand you. The cases are rather weak in German. No comparison to Turkish: Köpeği ısırıyor polis.
They do it for emphasis as part of everyday speech. You can put the subject first or last or in the middle and there is no confusion. Though admittedly that example is stretching it :-)
thaumasiotes|1 month ago
> Him Colonel Mustard killed.
You can do that. It's called fronting, and it's not rare in English.
It's not a case of the argument order being flexible, but what you said is just plain false.
> The only variation in your English examples is with the prepositions.
So?
> English is a language where you just do not get that kind of flexibility.
You mean the kind of flexibility I just illustrated? Or something else? You have a verb with 5 arguments. Two of them go in fixed locations. The other three don't go in fixed locations.
It's not a coincidence that the arguments that are free to wander around the sentence are the ones that bear explicit markings of the nature of their relationship to the verb.
> The dog the policeman bites.
> Stilted and prone to get misunderstood isn't it?
Not really. It's not a sentence, though; "the dog the policeman bites" is just a noun phrase referring to a dog. There's no verb. (Bites is a verb, but it's inside a relative clause.)
lolc|1 month ago
> It's not a coincidence that the arguments that are free to wander around the sentence are the ones that bear explicit markings of the nature of their relationship to the verb.
The thrust was that Turkish allows more liberties than other languages. Yes that is due to the Turkish language having more strict markings. What are we disagreeing about?