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ca6d8815 | 1 month ago

It is 49.8% (people who voted Trump in 2024) of 64.1% (people who voted in 2024), or 31.9% or ~1/3 of the total eligible voting population, which is what your parent states.

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dh2022|1 month ago

That is the problem though - a third of the US population is basically lunatics... This will not go away. And one cannot keep a third of the population "down".

ninth_ant|1 month ago

The parent comment was edited after my reply.

CamperBob2|1 month ago

Yes, sorry; I added 'eligible' to emphasize how many people failed to vote at all.

Unfortunately, my understanding based on reported surveys [1] is that if the non-voters had voted, Trump's margin of victory would have been even greater. If that's the case, then those who say that my 1/3 figure is too low are correct.

1: https://www.politico.com/news/2025/06/26/2024-election-turno...

xienze|1 month ago

You understand how statistics work, don't you? When you have 64% of the population voting, that's a pretty big sample size, enough so that you can reasonably extrapolate that the 49.8% share _probably_ holds across the rest of the population, give or take.

Put another way, if someone asked you to estimate what the split between the one third of the population that didn't vote was, what would you use as a reference point? Social media posts? Vibes? Or maybe polls leading up to the vote that showed the same roughly 50-50 split found in the actual results?

larkost|1 month ago

I don't think that you understand how that part of statistics works. You are said that we have sampled 64% of the population, so we can extrapolate to the rest. That works if the sampling is sufficiently random. But in this case the "sampling" is people who voted, so an entirely (self) selected population, and pretty much not random at all (i.e.: people who were mostly less decisive about their opinions/vote).

So I don't think we can extrapolate confidently at all. So we really don't know whether it holds for the rest of the population at all.