[TheCoelacanth]

No, because the slave states got to count slaves as 3/5 of a person for EC purposes.

If the president was elected by popular vote, slaves would count as zero because they obviously weren't going to let them vote.

[AnthonyMouse]

That's independent of the EC. They could have given the slave owners 3/5ths of a vote for each slave without the EC. And obviously that part of the system is no longer in operation, whereas the part Democrats complain about is that each state gets +2 electoral votes regardless of its population.

Which nominally gives slightly more weight to the lower population rural states, but that isn't even the primary consequence of the EC. The primary consequence is that it gives significantly more weight to swing states, which by definition don't favor any given party.

[Marazan]

> They could have given the slave owners 3/5ths of a vote for each slave without the EC

Yes, I suppose if you could accept the idea of a ludicrous hypothetical alternative that would have zero chance in reality of being implemented you can contort yourself enough to ignore that the EC is part of the compromise on slavery that forms the Constitution.