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waps | 10 years ago
Given the context, and the concept of abrogation itself, doesn't the quran pretty much says about itself that it was changed. And this verse itself is inconsistent since it both says it was changed and not changed.
And of course one can easily find examples of changes. And if you want to laugh about the whole thing :
"Wahadi says that this verse was sent down because the associators said, "Do you not see Muhammad, how he commands
his people to do something, then forbids them to do it and commands them to do its opposite? Today he says one thing and
tomorrow he changes his mind regarding it. The Qur'an is no more than the words of Muhammad, which he utters from
himself. It is composed of words which contradict one another." Thus says Wahidi, God sent down verse 101 of al-Nahl
(Q. 16), and this verse (Wahidi, p. 32: see also Zamakhshari, I. p. 303). Tabari interprets abrogation
(naskh) broadly as "what we [that is, God] abrogate regarding the precept of a verse which we change, or for
which we substitute another, so that what is lawful may become unlawful and what is unlawful may become lawful;
what is permitted may become prohibited and what is prohibited may become permitted. This however, can only be
done with regard to commands and prohibitions... but as for reports or narratives, they can neither be abrogated
nor can they abrogate" (Tabari, II, pp. 471-472; see also Shawkani, I, pp. 125-126)."
Confused little god you have there, no ?
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